A 32 year old man presents wtih 3 days of vomiting, nausea, and malaise. HIV was diagnosed 6 months ago but he has not been started on ant-retroviral therapy. He has no other significant past medical history.
He is apyrexial. BP is 100/60 and pulse 82. He has no oedema. JVP is not visible when lying flat.
Urine dipstick shows 1+ protein only. The only other investigation available is serum creatinine – 700 micromol/l (8 mg/dl).
What do you think are the main diagnostic possibilities here? What additional key questions would you like to ask? What would your initial management be?
Write what you think and what you'd do
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Case contributed by Fran Th’Ng and Gavin Dreyer